EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question paper 2025- Answer Key

📅 Published on: 14.12.2025

EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question paper 2025- Answer Key

The EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question Paper 2025 Answer Key helps candidates verify their responses and estimate their expected score before the declaration of official results. By comparing their attempted answers with the official EMRS PGT Tier 1 answer key, aspirants can analyze section-wise performance, identify mistakes, and understand the difficulty level of the exam. The answer key also provides transparency in the evaluation process and allows candidates to raise objections, if permitted by EMRS, within the stipulated time. Checking the EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question Paper 2025 answer key is an essential step for setting realistic expectations for Tier 2 preparation.

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General Awareness Questions with Answers

PART – I

GENERAL AWARENESS

Direction: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 10) by selecting the correct / most appropriate options.


Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Assemblies of various States:

(a) The Legislative Assembly of the State of Sikkim shall consist of not less than thirty members.

(b) The Legislative Assembly of the State of Mizoram shall consist of not less than thirty members.

(c) The Legislative Assembly of the State of Goa shall consist of not less than thirty members.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) Only (b) is correct
(2) Only (c) is correct
(3) Only (a) is correct
(4) Only (a) and (c) are correct

Question 2

What is the focus area of Human Development Report, 2025, published by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP)?

(1) Multi-dimensional Poverty
(2) Artificial Intelligence
(3) Nuclear Energy
(4) Global War

Question 3

Who among the following was the first Indian to serve as a Judge in the International Court of Justice?

(1) Mohd. Hidayatullah
(2) M.C. Setalvad
(3) R.S. Pathak
(4) B.N. Rau

Question 4

Which Column in the following table is incorrectly matched?

(1) 60 Parachute Field Hospital – 2024
(2) Odisha State Disaster Management Authority (OSDMA) – 2023
(3) Disaster Mitigation and Management Centre, Uttarakhand – 2022
(4) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Hyderabad – 2025

Question 5

As a way to strengthen regional cooperation which of the following BIMSTEC events was hosted by India for the first time in August, 2025?

(1) First Traditional Music Festival
(2) First Specially Abled Children’s Summit
(3) First Watersports Tournament
(4) First Regional Food Festival

Question 6

Who among the following is entrusted with the task of accreditation of National Human Rights Institutions?

(1) International Law Commission
(2) World Economic Forum
(3) UNDP
(4) GANHRI

Question 7

Who is the author of the book ‘Qaumi Sitare’, selected by Sahitya Akademi for the 2025 Bal Sahitya Puraskar in Urdu language?

(1) Abdul Rahim Nashtar
(2) Ghazanfar Iqbal
(3) Habib Saifi
(4) Raunaf Jamal

Question 8

Which among the following statements is incorrect regarding FIDE Women’s World Cup Chess Championship 2025?

(1) Divya Deshmukh became the fourth Indian woman to earn Grandmaster title.
(2) Koneru Humpy from India lost the final game in the tie-breaker.
(3) Divya Deshmukh from India won the Championship.
(4) The Championship was held in Latvia.

Question 9

Which among the following States had the highest women voters turnout for the General Elections 2024?

(1) Gujarat
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Assam
(4) Mizoram

Question 10

Which of the following has been entrusted with monitoring a child’s Right to Education under the Right to Education Act, in India?

(1) National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration
(2) Ministry of Education
(3) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(4) National Council of Educational Research and Training


Answers with Explanation

Correct Answer: (2) Only (c) is correct

Explanation: Goa Legislative Assembly has a minimum of 30 members. Sikkim and Mizoram have special provisions allowing more than 30 members.

Correct Answer: (2) Artificial Intelligence

Explanation: Human Development Report 2025 focuses on the impact of Artificial Intelligence on inequality and development.

Correct Answer: (4) B.N. Rau

Explanation: B.N. Rau was the first Indian Judge of the International Court of Justice.

Correct Answer: (4)

Explanation: The award has not been announced for the year 2025, making this pair incorrect.

Correct Answer: (2) First Specially Abled Children’s Summit

Correct Answer: (4) GANHRI

Correct Answer: (2) Ghazanfar Iqbal

Correct Answer: (1)

Explanation: Divya Deshmukh did not become the fourth Indian woman Grandmaster through this event.

Correct Answer: (4) Mizoram

Correct Answer: (3) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question paper 2025 Pdf Download

PART – II
REASONING ABILITY

Direction : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 11 to 25) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.


11.
Two statements have been given followed by two conclusions (I) and (II). Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statement :
• Some fruits are Litchi.
• All Litchi are pinkish-red.

Conclusions :
(I) Some fruits are pinkish-red.
(II) All pinkish-red things are Litchi.

Which of the above conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement ?

(1) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
(2) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows
(3) Only conclusion (I) follows
(4) Only conclusion (II) follows


12.
Two statements are given below, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) :
Educate a mother, and the whole family will be educated.

Reason (R) :
Educated mothers are more likely to take interest and invest in the education of their children and other members of family.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


13.
Among five friends – Karan, Lalit, Mathew, Naseem and Omar – who received their school results.
Karan scored higher than Mathew but lower than Omar.
Mathew scored higher than Lalit but lower than Naseem.
Naseem scored lower than Karan.
Who scored the highest among them ?

(1) Mathew
(2) Lalit
(3) Karan
(4) Omar


14.
Five friends : P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row facing north.
P is seated at the left end.
Q is to the right of R but to the left of S.
T is not seated at either end.
Who is sitting in the middle ?

(1) R
(2) S
(3) T
(4) Q


15.
Select the number that will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

2, 9, 28, 65, ?, 217, 344

(1) 145
(2) 197
(3) 101
(4) 126


16.
Select the letter cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

DOG, BUM, ?, XGY, VME

(1) ZBR
(2) ZAR
(3) ZAT
(4) ZAS


17.
There are six members in a family : Anjali, Nirmala, Ramesh, Saurav, Sonia and Vijay. Vijay is the brother of Anjali’s husband. Nirmala is Vijay’s mother. Sonia is the daughter of Saurav and Anjali and the granddaughter of Ramesh. How is Ramesh most likely related to Vijay from the following options ?

(1) Brother
(2) Grandfather
(3) Son
(4) Father


18.
If the following statements are true :

(a) A < F = B > E
(b) C > B = D > A

Which of the following conclusions is definitely false ?

(1) C < E
(2) A < C
(3) A = E
(4) F = D


19.
Select the Venn Diagram that best represents the relationship between the following set of classes :

School Staffs, Graduate People, Post Graduate People

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)


20.
You are given below a question followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II), each providing some information. Determine which of the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question :
What was the total profit of the company ‘Golden Boots’ ?

Statements :
(I) The company sells only one type of product – industrial boots.
(II) The company sold 6,500 pairs of industrial boots of different sizes and earned a profit of ₹75 on each pair, regardless of size.

(1) Both statements (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.
(2) Both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(4) The statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement (I) alone is not sufficient.


21.
If the following symbols indicate family relationships :

(a) ‘A + B’ → A is the son of B
(b) ‘A – B’ → A is the brother of B
(c) ‘A × B’ → A is married to B
(d) ‘A @ B’ → A is the father of B

Now consider the relation :

P @ Q – R × S + T

How is P best related to T from the following options ?

(1) Son’s Father-in-law
(2) Son’s Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law
(4) Brother-in-law


22.
Bharti starts walking from her house in the morning towards the East. After walking 100 meters, she turns left and walks 50 meters. Then she turns right and walks 100 meters. Finally, she turns right again and walks 50 meters. How far and in which direction is she from her starting point ?

(1) 50 meters North
(2) 150 meters East
(3) 200 meters East
(4) 50 meters West


23.
Eight persons – four ladies (Anjali, Bharti, Kashmira and Manpreet) and four gentlemen (Amit, Farhan, George and Sameer) – are sitting around a circular table facing each other. The following conditions hold :

• No two ladies and no two gentlemen sit next to each other.
• Bharti is seated immediately to the left of Amit.
• Kashmira, who is seated between Farhan and George, is facing Anjali.
• Sameer, who is seated between Anjali and Manpreet, is facing Farhan.

Who is seated immediately to the left of Manpreet ?

(1) Farhan
(2) Amit
(3) Sameer
(4) George


24.
A T20 cricket team has 11 players. Besides the wicketkeeper, the team has 7 good batsmen and 6 good bowlers. How many allrounders (players who are both good batsmen and good bowlers) are there in the team ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2


25.
Two statements are given below, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) :
A small iron nail sinks in fresh water, whereas a large iron ship floats in seawater.

Reason (R) :
Seawater has a greater density than fresh water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

11.

Show Answer
(3) Only conclusion (I) follows

12.

Show Answer
(3)

13.

Show Answer
(4) Omar

14.

Show Answer
(1) R

15.

Show Answer
(4) 126

16.

Show Answer
(4) ZAS

17.

Show Answer
(4) Father

18.

Show Answer
(1) C < E

19.

Show Answer
(2)

20.

Show Answer
(4)

21.

Show Answer
(3) Father-in-law

22.

Show Answer
(3) 200 meters East

23.

Show Answer
(4) George

24.

Show Answer
(1) 3

25.

Show Answer
(4)

EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question paper 2025- Answer Key Download

PART – III | Knowledge of ICT

PART – III / भाग – III
KNOWLEDGE OF ICT / ICT का ज्ञान

Direction: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 26 to 40) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

26. Which type of wired network is commonly used to share a printer among 8 computers in an office room?

(1) PAN
(2) WAN
(3) LAN
(4) MAN

Correct Answer: (3) LAN

27. Which of the following is not an example of application software?

(1) Microsoft Word
(2) Microsoft Edge
(3) Microsoft Defender
(4) Microsoft Access

Correct Answer: (3) Microsoft Defender

28. Which of the following is a search engine developed by Microsoft?

(1) Microsoft Edge
(2) Microsoft Bing
(3) Microsoft Access
(4) Microsoft 365

Correct Answer: (2) Microsoft Bing

29. Which of the following is an open-source spreadsheet software?

(1) LibreOffice Calc
(2) Apple Numbers
(3) Microsoft Excel
(4) Google Sheets

Correct Answer: (1) LibreOffice Calc

30. Which of the following relatively accurately describes ChatGPT?

(1) A knowledge database
(2) A social networking platform
(3) An AI-powered virtual assistant
(4) A hardware device

Correct Answer: (3) An AI-powered virtual assistant

31. The file extension .docx is the default extension for which type of file?

(1) DB2 file
(2) Microsoft Defender file
(3) Microsoft Word file
(4) Database file

Correct Answer: (3) Microsoft Word file

32. Which protocol is commonly used to send and receive emails on the internet?

(1) HTTPS
(2) WWW
(3) FTP
(4) SMTP

Correct Answer: (4) SMTP

33. Which of the following is not a primary and direct characteristic of a digital signature?

(1) Confidentiality
(2) Non-repudiation
(3) Integrity
(4) Authenticity

Correct Answer: (1) Confidentiality

34. In the context of computer memory, which of the following correctly represents the full form of the unit GB?

(1) Graybit
(2) Gigabyte
(3) Graybyte
(4) Gridbit

Correct Answer: (2) Gigabyte

35. Which of the following is an example of an output device in a computer system?

(1) Plotter
(2) Microphone
(3) Scanner
(4) Webcam

Correct Answer: (1) Plotter

36. Which of the following is the correct cloud storage service developed by Google?

(1) OneDrive
(2) iCloud
(3) Google Drive
(4) Google Chrome

Correct Answer: (3) Google Drive

37. A UPS provides automatic backup power to a computer system. In the full form of UPS, what does the letter ‘U’ stand for?

(1) Unbreakable
(2) Uninterruptible
(3) Unceasing
(4) Unremitting

Correct Answer: (2) Uninterruptible

38. Which of the following file extensions is commonly used for storing video files?

(1) .avi
(2) .tiff
(3) .pdf
(4) .wav

Correct Answer: (1) .avi

39. Which of the following is not a valid email address?

(1) myname.country@mymail.in
(2) myname-country@mymail.com
(3) myname#country@gmail.com
(4) myname_country@mymail.in

Correct Answer: (3) myname#country@gmail.com

40. Which of the following keyboard shortcut combinations is commonly used to perform the “Select All” operation in Microsoft Windows?

(1) Ctrl + A
(2) Ctrl + X
(3) Ctrl + C
(4) Ctrl + V

Correct Answer: (1) Ctrl + A

Emrs previous year Question paper 2025

PART – IV
TEACHING APTITUDE

Direction: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 41 to 70) by selecting the correct / most appropriate options.

41. Children process and interpret new knowledge by :
(a) recording experiences exactly as they happen
(b) fitting new experiences into existing knowledge
(c) revising existing understanding based on new ‘input’
(d) rejecting experiences that do not fit prior knowledge
(e) building knowledge through interaction and reflection

Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (b), (d) and (e)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a), (c) and (e)
(4) Only (b), (c) and (e)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Only (b), (c) and (e)
42. A teacher wants to help students master a skill effectively. Which one of the following approaches aligns comprehensively with constructivist-based pedagogy ?
(1) Asking students to memorise all steps and reproduce them during assessments.
(2) Giving homework assignments that repeat classwork without discussion or explanation.
(3) Repeating the same exercise daily until students remember it by heart.
(4) Encouraging students to practice meaningfully with variety, feedback and reflection.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Encouraging students to practice meaningfully with variety, feedback and reflection
43. As per NCFSE 2023, which of the following learning standards are more specific statements that give direction to curriculum development and implementation ?
(1) Competencies
(2) Learning Outcomes
(3) Curricular Aims
(4) Curricular Goals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (2) Learning Outcomes
44. The collaborative learning enhances understanding by :
(1) increasing involvement and promotes shared thinking and reflection
(2) discouraging individuals to take on varied roles, such as observers, mediators and note-takers
(3) allowing students to compete and show authoritarian leadership
(4) restricting students to work independently
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) increasing involvement and promotes shared thinking and reflection
45. A science teacher might provide students with a brief demonstration of how perceptions of colour change depending on the intensity of the light source and then ask them to design their own experiment to further examine their relationship. This is an example of :
(1) Direct instruction
(2) Rote learning
(3) Expository teaching
(4) Problem-based learning
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Problem-based learning
46. The ‘key function’ of instruction in the process of education is to :
(1) involve unscientific methods of communication
(2) manage the classroom by making children sit passively
(3) guide learners through meaningful experiences that promote understanding
(4) not involve ideas and values
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (3) guide learners through meaningful experiences that promote understanding
47. ‘Textbook Ventricity’ in education is about :
(1) high quality of textbooks
(2) availability of multiple textbooks
(3) inclusive notion of textbooks
(4) over-dependence on textbooks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) over-dependence on textbooks
48. The foundational principle of creating respectful and inclusive classrooms is :
(1) providing equal opportunities regardless of background, and promoting care, empathy and equity
(2) where teacher ignores the emotions and moods of students – to help them settle and learn better
(3) focuses only on students who demonstrate appropriate behaviour and academic excellence
(4) ensuring students are grouped based on similar learning abilities but adopt same methods of learning using same material to all
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) providing equal opportunities regardless of background
49. Which instructional approach is most likely to promote conceptual understanding in a constructivist setting ?
(1) Dictating notes from the blackboard
(2) Weekly standardized testing
(3) Direct instruction with repetitive practice
(4) Inquiry-based learning with real-life scenarios
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Inquiry-based learning with real-life scenarios
50. A major criticism of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development is that :
(1) he overlooked the influence of social and cultural environments
(2) he believed cognition is a function of both social and cultural forces
(3) he overemphasized the role of language and environment in cognition
(4) he did not recognize the stages of development
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) he overlooked the influence of social and cultural environments
51. The key aspects of an inclusive classroom are :
(a) Valuing cultural diversity and students’ voices
(b) Providing identical instruction to all students
(c) Sharing activities and learning materials
(d) Promoting openness and acceptance

Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (b) and (d)
(2) Only (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (a), (c) and (d)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Only (a), (c) and (d)
52. As per NCFSE, 2023, which of the following aspect is not part of Curriculum-associated category of school processes ?
(1) School timetable
(2) Teacher professional development
(3) Health and hygiene
(4) Meal-time
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Meal-time
53. Which of the following is not a pathway that leads to growth and development of competence in the professional domains as described in the National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST), 2023 ?
(1) Exposure and Interaction
(2) Continuous Professional Development
(3) Experience
(4) Incentive
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Incentive
54. The ‘Panchakosha’ framework challenge the dichotomy in traditional educational paradigms by :
(1) focusing solely on ancient practices in modern curricula
(2) offering a body-mind-spirit continuum for holistic growth
(3) rejecting science in favor of spiritual goals
(4) equating physical education with emotional intelligence
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (2) offering a body-mind-spirit continuum for holistic growth
55. Which of the following is/are true ?
Statement – I: Aptitude refers to special abilities in a particular field of activity.
Statement – II: Interest is a preference for a particular activity.

Choose the correct option :
(1) Statement I and Statement II
(2) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
(3) Only Statement I
(4) Only Statement II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I and Statement II
56. Which among the following is true in the context of Sigmund Freud ?
(a) Psychoanalysis as a system or school of psychology was his brainchild.
(b) He used Id, Ego and Super Ego for explaining the structure of the psyche.
(c) He does not believe in the role of instinct in driving human behaviour.
(d) He postulated two main instincts namely the life instinct and the death instinct.

Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (c) and (d)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
57. In a constructivist classroom, the teacher’s primary role is to :
(1) Encourage students to question and facilitate their learning
(2) Evaluate students through standardized tests only
(3) Deliver lectures and provide notes
(4) Maintain silence and discipline in the classroom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Encourage students to question and facilitate their learning
58. The knowledge gained through personal experience, such as seeing color, is described as ______ knowledge.
(1) Experiential
(2) Logical
(3) Intuitive
(4) Reasoned
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Experiential
59. As per NCFSE 2023, homework :
(1) is intended to merely repeat what has been learnt in class.
(2) does not include application of concepts through specific tasks.
(3) is not an extension of the learning process.
(4) is a consolidation of work done in school.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) is a consolidation of work done in school
60. Match the following activities with the learning process they best illustrate.
Column A : Activity
(a) Learners analyse and generate evidence to verify their hypothesis related to mammals living on land or water, etc.
(b) Learners make notes of the key events or behaviour or activities of animals.
(c) Learners relate their analysis to the text.
(d) Learners form groups to work on the learning task.

Column B : Learning Process
(i) Interpretations construction
(ii) Contextualisation
(iii) Observation
(iv) Collaboration

Options:
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
61. What is the correct sequence of the five steps in the ‘Panchpadi’ learning process in Indian tradition ?
(1) Prayog – Abhyas – Aditi – Bodh – Prasar
(2) Aditi – Bodh – Abhyas – Prayog – Prasar
(3) Aditi – Abhyas – Bodh – Prasar – Prayog
(4) Aditi – Bodh – Prasar – Abhyas – Prayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (2) Aditi – Bodh – Abhyas – Prayog – Prasar
62. Which components from the teaching plan does reviewing prior knowledge and selecting materials reflect ?
(a) Assessment strategies
(b) Competencies to be achieved
(c) Pedagogical choices based on student understanding
(d) Content and teaching-learning materials’ selection
(e) Home assignments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Only (c) and (d)
63. Statements on Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences :
Statement I and Statement II given.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I and Statement II
64. What roles do emotions play in children’s learning ?
(a) Emotions enhance attention and memory
(b) Negative emotions always improve focus
(c) Positive emotions encourage exploration
(d) Emotions and learning are unrelated
(e) Positive relationships nurture positive emotions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (3) Only (a), (c) and (e)
65. The inference of ‘Knowing through circumstantial implication’ in the Pramana-Shashtra is known as :
(1) Arthapatti
(2) Upamana
(3) Anumana
(4) Anupalabdi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Arthapatti
66. As per NCFSE 2023, how should subject offerings be determined ?
(1) Based on practical applicability and work domains
(2) Based on faculty availability
(3) Based on student trends
(4) Based on traditional disciplines only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Based on practical applicability and work domains
67. Which is essential for developing conceptual understanding ?
(1) Learning unrelated information
(2) Being told principles directly
(3) Connecting concepts and reflecting on prior knowledge
(4) Practicing recall by repetition
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (3) Connecting concepts and reflecting on prior knowledge
68. Which aspect violates non-negotiable pedagogical principles (NCFSE 2023) ?
(1) Memorisation as primary learning
(2) Students not active agents
(3) Punishment and fear improves learning
(4) Inequity is unacceptable
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (3) Punishment and fear helps to improve learning
69. Which is true about pedagogy ?
(1) Only examination
(2) Only memorization
(3) Art and science of teaching
(4) Only subject teaching
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (3) It refers to the art and science of teaching
70. Which statement about children’s learning is true ?
(1) Emotions not connected to learning
(2) No role of social environment
(3) Brain has little role
(4) Learning is based on associations and connections
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Learning is based on the associations and connections that children make

Emrs previous year Question paper 2025 Pdf Download

PART – VI | General English & Hindi

PART – VI
GENERAL ENGLISH

101. Identify the Part of Speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.
Kamala was all alone when I saw her.

(1) Adjective
(2) Conjunction
(3) Pronoun
(4) Adverb

Correct Answer: (4) Adverb

102. Choose the option in which the following jumbled groups of words can be correctly rearranged to form a meaningful sentence.

(a) with what
(b) he received last year
(c) is mild contrasted
(d) the present warning

(1) (a), (b), (d), (c)
(2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) (d), (c), (a), (b)

Correct Answer: (4)

103. Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word given below.
INTEGRITY

(1) Obesiance
(2) Fragility
(3) Intensity
(4) Compliance

Correct Answer: (4) Compliance

104. One of the parts of the following sentence may or may not have an error. Identify the one with the error, if any.

On my way to | school I found | a | 50 – rupees note
(a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(1) (c)
(2) (d)
(3) (a)
(4) (b)

Correct Answer: (2) (d)

105. This national highway runs ______ hill and plain.

(1) below
(2) over
(3) into
(4) above

Correct Answer: (2) over

106. Choose the option nearest in meaning to the word given below.
FASTIDIOUS

(1) Strong
(2) Fashionable
(3) Meticulous
(4) Fast

Correct Answer: (3) Meticulous

107. Identify the clause of the underlined part of the following sentence.
That he would score a century is almost certain.

(1) Adjective
(2) Adverb
(3) Principal
(4) Noun

Correct Answer: (4) Noun

108. St. James’ is ______ church nearest my residence.

(1) the
(2) no article
(3) a
(4) an

Correct Answer: (1) the

109. Choose the option in which VOICE in the given sentence has been correctly changed.
I gave you a pen last year.

(1) You were given a pen by me last year.
(2) A pen was given to you last year.
(3) Last year you had been given a pen by me.
(4) Last year a pen was given to you.

Correct Answer: (4)

110. Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom used in the given sentence.
On the way we had lunch of a kind.

(1) of a poor kind
(2) very spicy
(3) of great quality
(4) very expensive

Correct Answer: (1) of a poor kind

PART – VI
GENERAL HINDI

111. निम्नलिखित विलोमार्थी शब्द-युग्मों में कौन-सा असंगत है ?

(1) उत्कर्ष – निकर्ष
(2) निराशित – साश्रय
(3) कनिष्ठ – ज्येष्ठ
(4) ग्राह्य – त्याज्य

Correct Answer: (2)

112. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में ‘आकाश’ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है :

(1) अंबर
(2) मधुरत
(3) गगनपथ
(4) नभ

Correct Answer: (2)

113. शब्द ‘वाग्जाल’ का संधि-विच्छेद है :

(1) वाग + जाल
(2) वाग् + जाल
(3) वाक + जाल
(4) वाक् + जाल

Correct Answer: (2)

114. ‘वीरोचित’ का संधि-विच्छेद है :

(1) वीरा + उचित
(2) वीर + उचित
(3) वीरो + चित
(4) वी + रोचित

Correct Answer: (2)

115. ‘जो व्याकरण को जानता हो’ वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द है :

(1) वैयाकरण
(2) व्याकरणी
(3) व्याकरणक
(4) व्याकरणिक

Correct Answer: (1)

116. वर्तनी की दृष्टि से निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा शब्द शुद्ध है ?

(1) बहूत्सव
(2) बहुत्सव
(3) बहूत्सव
(4) बहूस्तव

Correct Answer: (2)

117. ‘अनुलोम’ का विलोम शब्द है :

(1) सुलोम
(2) प्रतिलोम
(3) अनुलोम
(4) अवलोम

Correct Answer: (2)

118. ‘विद्यासागर’ का सामासिक विग्रह है :

(1) विद्या और सागर
(2) विद्या का सागर
(3) विद्या के लिए सागर
(4) विद्या में सागर

Correct Answer: (2)

119. ‘बैल न कूदे, कूदे तंग’ कहावत का अर्थ है :

(1) साहसिक कार्य करना
(2) स्वामी के बल पर सेवक का साहस
(3) वीरता का विश्वास होना
(4) गड्ढे में कूदना

Correct Answer: (2)

120. ‘ज्वार’ किसका पर्यायवाची है ?

(1) धरती
(2) जल
(3) पवन
(4) अग्नि

Correct Answer: (2)

EMRS PGT TIER 1 Question paper 2025

PART – V

EXPERIENTIAL ACTIVITY / प्रायोगिक क्रियाकलाप

71. Which of the following may be taken into consideration for developing exemplar-based teaching learning activities?

(a) The objectives of the lesson are important for developing activities.
(b) Developing tasks and activities for exemplars is a single step task.
(c) It is necessary that all lessons will lend to same activities.
(d) The language skills are developed not in isolation but holistically for developing concepts and language of the learners.

Choose the correct option :

(1) Only (a) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a), (b) and (c)

Answer

Correct Answer: (1) Only (a) and (d)

72. The primary purpose of introducing a “10-day bagless period” for students in Grades 6–8 as mentioned in the NEP 2020 is to :

(1) promote physical and wellness activities
(2) encourage digital learning and coding skills
(3) reduce the academic load on students during examinations
(4) provide hands-on experience in vocational arts and connect with local experts

Answer

Correct Answer: (4) provide hands-on experience in vocational arts and connect with local experts

73. Which of the following helps in anger management?

(1) Look outward
(2) Recognize the power of one’s thoughts
(3) Engage in self-talk that burns
(4) Ascribe intentions and ulterior motives to others

Answer

Correct Answer: (2) Recognize the power of one’s thoughts

74. According to National Education Policy 2020, what should be done to promote inclusion in the classroom?

(1) Disrespecting empathy, tolerance
(2) Excluding knowledge of various cultures
(3) Promoting biases and stereotypes
(4) Developing respect for diversity

Answer

Correct Answer: (4) Developing respect for diversity

75. Which of the following examples can be taken by the teacher to explain artificial ecosystem to students?

(a) Forest
(b) Ponds
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium

Choose the correct option :

(1) Only (b) and (c)
(2) Only (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a) and (d)

Answer

Correct Answer: (2) Only (c) and (d)

76. Which option describes the approach taken by National Education Policy 2020 to include essential subjects, skills and abilities in the core academic subjects for better exam performance?

(1) Focusing primarily on foreign curricula to increase global competitiveness
(2) Limiting student choice to ensure standardized learning
(3) A multidisciplinary and flexible approach including contemporary subjects, traditional subjects and vocational education
(4) A rigid and traditional approach to education

Answer

Correct Answer: (3) A multidisciplinary and flexible approach

77. Which platform is mentioned for hosting virtual labs in National Education Policy 2020?

(1) YOUTUBE
(2) ZOOM
(3) GOOGLE
(4) SWAYAM

Answer

Correct Answer: (4) SWAYAM

78. In the NEP 2020, the primary purpose of removing the hard separation among curricular, co-curricular and vocational subjects in secondary school education is to :

(1) allow students to design holistic educational paths aligned with their interests and life goals
(2) reduce the number of compulsory subjects in the curriculum
(3) focus only on academic subjects
(4) ensure equal time is allocated to all subjects regardless of students’ preferences

Answer

Correct Answer: (1) allow students to design holistic educational paths

79. According to NEP 2020, which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all by 2030?

(1) SDG 6
(2) SDG 7
(3) SDG 5
(4) SDG 4

Answer

Correct Answer: (4) SDG 4

80. Which of the following types of mental operations relates to the nature of problem-organising a play that involves identification of an appropriate theme, screening of actors, actresses, arranging money, etc.?

(1) plan the solution
(2) evaluate the outcome
(3) identify the problem
(4) represent the problem

Answer

Correct Answer: (1) plan the solution

81. Which among the following are true in the context of learner and the language learning?

(a) Language gives meaning to learner’s existence.
(b) Language learning is a total text-based phenomenon.
(c) Mother tongue gives learners the comfort and the pleasure of expressing themselves.
(d) Language is easiest to communicate in the language which the learners know well.

Choose the correct option :

(1) Only (c) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a), (c) and (d)

Answer

Correct Answer: (4) Only (a), (c) and (d)

82. Carl Rogers’ theory grew out of his experiences of listening to patients in his clinic. He views personality development as a :

(1) static and discrete process
(2) continuous process
(3) static process
(4) discrete process

Answer

Correct Answer: (2) continuous process

83. Consider the following two statements in the context of knowledge.

Statement I : Any knowledge discipline is hard to define, because it evolves continuously.
Statement II : Any knowledge discipline is hard to define because the range of phenomena it studies cannot be captured by any one definition.

Answer

Correct Answer: (1) Statement I and Statement II

84. Which among the following statements is/are true in the context of Content Knowledge?

Statement I : It refers to teachers’ understanding of the subject as well as how to transact it in the classroom.
Statement II : It itself is sufficient for effective teaching.

Answer

Correct Answer: (3) Only Statement I

85. According to National Education Policy 2020, what is the intended role of the State School Standard Authority (SSSA) in the school regulatory framework?

(1) Accreditation
(2) Curriculum Development
(3) Inspection
(4) Surveillance

Answer

Correct Answer: (3) Inspection

Question 86

A science teacher wrote some examples of biodegradation on the blackboard and asked her students which of the groups contained only biodegradable substances.

(a) Grass, wood and leather
(b) Grass, wood and plastic
(c) Fruit-peels, cake and lime-juice
(d) Cake, wood and grass

Choose the correct option :

(1) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (c)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (a) and (c)

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (1) Only (a), (c) and (d)

Question 87

Anmol is learning geometry. Her teacher asks her to build various 3D shapes using paper and to analyze their edges and vertices. Soham imagines the shapes in his mind and explains their properties without using models. What does this scenario suggest about constructivist learning?

(1) Learning geometry requires strict adherence to visual tools.
(2) Constructivist learning is unsuitable for abstract subjects like geometry.
(3) Only physical interaction with content leads to real understanding.
(4) Mental and physical engagement are equally valid for constructing knowledge.

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (4) Mental and physical engagement are equally valid for constructing knowledge.

Question 88

The vision of the National Education Policy 2020 is to :

(1) nurture learners with a deep-rooted pride in being Indian as well as to develop knowledge, skills, values and dispositions.
(2) promote vocational training as the primary goal of education.
(3) focus academic learning exclusively on examination results.
(4) create technologically advanced institutions only.

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (1)

Question 89

A teacher is conducting revision sessions by making small discussion groups before an exam to promote deeper understanding. This is an example of ______ method.

(1) Handout
(2) Lecture
(3) Silent reading
(4) Peer-teaching

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (4) Peer-teaching

Question 90

Thinking about riding and watching another person ride a bike represents which stage of Kolb’s Experiential Learning Cycle?

(1) Abstract conceptualization
(2) Active experimentation
(3) Concrete experience
(4) Reflective observation

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (4) Reflective observation

Question 91

A teacher has discussed a certain topic in classroom and after the conclusion of the unit, he/she asked the students to develop a concept map. How will this concept map be beneficial for the teacher?

(a) to gain insights into the ways student view a concept or topic
(b) to examine only the misconceptions of the students
(c) to assess the structural complexity of the relationships student depict

Choose the correct option :

(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Only (a)

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (3) Only (a) and (c)

Question 92

Children form a respectful attitude towards elders by observing that their parents show respect for elders. Such attitude is learnt through :

(1) Modelling
(2) Reward
(3) Sympathy
(4) Empathy

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (1) Modelling

Question 93

According to the National Education Policy 2020, what should be the teacher’s approach towards nurturing gifted students within regular classrooms?

(1) Providing no guidance and leaving them on their own.
(2) Providing standard material for all students irrespective of their abilities.
(3) Segregating them from other students.
(4) Giving students supplementary enrichment material.

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (4)

Question 94

As per National Education Policy 2020, which body is proposed to set standards for online learning?

(1) National Educational Technology Forum (NETF)
(2) Central Institute of Educational Technology – National Council of Educational Research and Training (CIET–NCERT)
(3) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(4) National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (1) NETF

Question 95

Statement I : Gender role is a set of expectations that prescribe how only females should think, act and feel.

Statement II : Parents have no influence on gender socialization especially in the early years of development.

(1) Only Statement I
(2) Only Statement II
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II
(4) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (4)

Question 96

Social loafing in a group of adolescents can be reduced by :

(1) Increasing the apparent importance or value of a task
(2) Making people feel that their individual contribution is not important
(3) Delegating tasks only to one member
(4) Making the efforts of each person non-identifiable

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (1)

Question 97

In everyday language, the word ‘objective’ means :

(a) Based on facts alone
(b) Unbiased
(c) Based on emotions only
(d) Only (a) and (b)

(1) Only (c) and (d)
(2) Only (a) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b) and (c)

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (3)

Question 98

In a particular secondary classroom, students have access to a wide range of information and have the right to get their viewpoints heard. The above statement is an example of :

(1) Teacher centered classroom
(2) Textbooks centered classroom
(3) Democratic classroom
(4) Authoritarian classroom

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (3)

Question 99

Statement I : The development of an assessment framework is an iterative process, which takes place step by step.

Statement II : The work on the assessment framework should begin before the items are developed.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
(2) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
(3) Only Statement I
(4) Only Statement II

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (1)

Question 100

Two students in a Political Science class, after discussion, decided that “Women should not be allowed to join combat units and go up to the highest position of the army.” Their decision reflects the idea of :

(a) Sexism
(b) Feminism
(c) Gender
(d) Patriarchy

(1) Only (b) and (c)
(2) Only (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a) and (d)

Show Answer
Correct Answer : (4)

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