📅 Published on: 14.12.2025
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ToggleEMRS PGT Tier 1 Question paper 2025- Answer Key

The EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question Paper 2025 Answer Key helps candidates verify their responses and estimate their expected score before the declaration of official results. By comparing their attempted answers with the official EMRS PGT Tier 1 answer key, aspirants can analyze section-wise performance, identify mistakes, and understand the difficulty level of the exam. The answer key also provides transparency in the evaluation process and allows candidates to raise objections, if permitted by EMRS, within the stipulated time. Checking the EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question Paper 2025 answer key is an essential step for setting realistic expectations for Tier 2 preparation.
PART – I
GENERAL AWARENESS
Direction: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 10) by selecting the correct / most appropriate options.
Question 1
Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Assemblies of various States:
(a) The Legislative Assembly of the State of Sikkim shall consist of not less than thirty members.
(b) The Legislative Assembly of the State of Mizoram shall consist of not less than thirty members.
(c) The Legislative Assembly of the State of Goa shall consist of not less than thirty members.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(1) Only (b) is correct
(2) Only (c) is correct
(3) Only (a) is correct
(4) Only (a) and (c) are correct
Question 2
What is the focus area of Human Development Report, 2025, published by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP)?
(1) Multi-dimensional Poverty
(2) Artificial Intelligence
(3) Nuclear Energy
(4) Global War
Question 3
Who among the following was the first Indian to serve as a Judge in the International Court of Justice?
(1) Mohd. Hidayatullah
(2) M.C. Setalvad
(3) R.S. Pathak
(4) B.N. Rau
Question 4
Which Column in the following table is incorrectly matched?
(1) 60 Parachute Field Hospital – 2024
(2) Odisha State Disaster Management Authority (OSDMA) – 2023
(3) Disaster Mitigation and Management Centre, Uttarakhand – 2022
(4) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Hyderabad – 2025
Question 5
As a way to strengthen regional cooperation which of the following BIMSTEC events was hosted by India for the first time in August, 2025?
(1) First Traditional Music Festival
(2) First Specially Abled Children’s Summit
(3) First Watersports Tournament
(4) First Regional Food Festival
Question 6
Who among the following is entrusted with the task of accreditation of National Human Rights Institutions?
(1) International Law Commission
(2) World Economic Forum
(3) UNDP
(4) GANHRI
Question 7
Who is the author of the book ‘Qaumi Sitare’, selected by Sahitya Akademi for the 2025 Bal Sahitya Puraskar in Urdu language?
(1) Abdul Rahim Nashtar
(2) Ghazanfar Iqbal
(3) Habib Saifi
(4) Raunaf Jamal
Question 8
Which among the following statements is incorrect regarding FIDE Women’s World Cup Chess Championship 2025?
(1) Divya Deshmukh became the fourth Indian woman to earn Grandmaster title.
(2) Koneru Humpy from India lost the final game in the tie-breaker.
(3) Divya Deshmukh from India won the Championship.
(4) The Championship was held in Latvia.
Question 9
Which among the following States had the highest women voters turnout for the General Elections 2024?
(1) Gujarat
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Assam
(4) Mizoram
Question 10
Which of the following has been entrusted with monitoring a child’s Right to Education under the Right to Education Act, in India?
(1) National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration
(2) Ministry of Education
(3) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(4) National Council of Educational Research and Training
Answers with Explanation
Correct Answer: (2) Only (c) is correct
Explanation: Goa Legislative Assembly has a minimum of 30 members. Sikkim and Mizoram have special provisions allowing more than 30 members.
Correct Answer: (2) Artificial Intelligence
Explanation: Human Development Report 2025 focuses on the impact of Artificial Intelligence on inequality and development.
Correct Answer: (4) B.N. Rau
Explanation: B.N. Rau was the first Indian Judge of the International Court of Justice.
Correct Answer: (4)
Explanation: The award has not been announced for the year 2025, making this pair incorrect.
Correct Answer: (2) First Specially Abled Children’s Summit
Correct Answer: (4) GANHRI
Correct Answer: (2) Ghazanfar Iqbal
Correct Answer: (1)
Explanation: Divya Deshmukh did not become the fourth Indian woman Grandmaster through this event.
Correct Answer: (4) Mizoram
Correct Answer: (3) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
EMRS STUDY MATERIAL
EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question paper 2025 Pdf Download
PART – II
REASONING ABILITY
Direction : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 11 to 25) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
11.
Two statements have been given followed by two conclusions (I) and (II). Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statement :
• Some fruits are Litchi.
• All Litchi are pinkish-red.
Conclusions :
(I) Some fruits are pinkish-red.
(II) All pinkish-red things are Litchi.
Which of the above conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement ?
(1) Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
(2) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows
(3) Only conclusion (I) follows
(4) Only conclusion (II) follows
12.
Two statements are given below, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
Educate a mother, and the whole family will be educated.
Reason (R) :
Educated mothers are more likely to take interest and invest in the education of their children and other members of family.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
13.
Among five friends – Karan, Lalit, Mathew, Naseem and Omar – who received their school results.
Karan scored higher than Mathew but lower than Omar.
Mathew scored higher than Lalit but lower than Naseem.
Naseem scored lower than Karan.
Who scored the highest among them ?
(1) Mathew
(2) Lalit
(3) Karan
(4) Omar
14.
Five friends : P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row facing north.
P is seated at the left end.
Q is to the right of R but to the left of S.
T is not seated at either end.
Who is sitting in the middle ?
(1) R
(2) S
(3) T
(4) Q
15.
Select the number that will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
2, 9, 28, 65, ?, 217, 344
(1) 145
(2) 197
(3) 101
(4) 126
16.
Select the letter cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
DOG, BUM, ?, XGY, VME
(1) ZBR
(2) ZAR
(3) ZAT
(4) ZAS
17.
There are six members in a family : Anjali, Nirmala, Ramesh, Saurav, Sonia and Vijay. Vijay is the brother of Anjali’s husband. Nirmala is Vijay’s mother. Sonia is the daughter of Saurav and Anjali and the granddaughter of Ramesh. How is Ramesh most likely related to Vijay from the following options ?
(1) Brother
(2) Grandfather
(3) Son
(4) Father
18.
If the following statements are true :
(a) A < F = B > E
(b) C > B = D > A
Which of the following conclusions is definitely false ?
(1) C < E
(2) A < C
(3) A = E
(4) F = D
19.
Select the Venn Diagram that best represents the relationship between the following set of classes :
School Staffs, Graduate People, Post Graduate People
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
20.
You are given below a question followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II), each providing some information. Determine which of the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question.
Question :
What was the total profit of the company ‘Golden Boots’ ?
Statements :
(I) The company sells only one type of product – industrial boots.
(II) The company sold 6,500 pairs of industrial boots of different sizes and earned a profit of ₹75 on each pair, regardless of size.
(1) Both statements (I) and (II) together are necessary to answer the question.
(2) Both statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) The statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(4) The statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
21.
If the following symbols indicate family relationships :
(a) ‘A + B’ → A is the son of B
(b) ‘A – B’ → A is the brother of B
(c) ‘A × B’ → A is married to B
(d) ‘A @ B’ → A is the father of B
Now consider the relation :
P @ Q – R × S + T
How is P best related to T from the following options ?
(1) Son’s Father-in-law
(2) Son’s Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law
(4) Brother-in-law
22.
Bharti starts walking from her house in the morning towards the East. After walking 100 meters, she turns left and walks 50 meters. Then she turns right and walks 100 meters. Finally, she turns right again and walks 50 meters. How far and in which direction is she from her starting point ?
(1) 50 meters North
(2) 150 meters East
(3) 200 meters East
(4) 50 meters West
23.
Eight persons – four ladies (Anjali, Bharti, Kashmira and Manpreet) and four gentlemen (Amit, Farhan, George and Sameer) – are sitting around a circular table facing each other. The following conditions hold :
• No two ladies and no two gentlemen sit next to each other.
• Bharti is seated immediately to the left of Amit.
• Kashmira, who is seated between Farhan and George, is facing Anjali.
• Sameer, who is seated between Anjali and Manpreet, is facing Farhan.
Who is seated immediately to the left of Manpreet ?
(1) Farhan
(2) Amit
(3) Sameer
(4) George
24.
A T20 cricket team has 11 players. Besides the wicketkeeper, the team has 7 good batsmen and 6 good bowlers. How many allrounders (players who are both good batsmen and good bowlers) are there in the team ?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2
25.
Two statements are given below, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) :
A small iron nail sinks in fresh water, whereas a large iron ship floats in seawater.
Reason (R) :
Seawater has a greater density than fresh water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
11.
Show Answer
12.
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13.
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14.
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15.
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16.
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17.
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18.
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19.
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20.
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21.
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22.
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23.
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24.
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25.
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EMRS PGT Tier 1 Question paper 2025- Answer Key Download
PART – III / भाग – III
KNOWLEDGE OF ICT / ICT का ज्ञान
Direction: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 26 to 40) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
26. Which type of wired network is commonly used to share a printer among 8 computers in an office room?
(1) PAN
(2) WAN
(3) LAN
(4) MAN
27. Which of the following is not an example of application software?
(1) Microsoft Word
(2) Microsoft Edge
(3) Microsoft Defender
(4) Microsoft Access
28. Which of the following is a search engine developed by Microsoft?
(1) Microsoft Edge
(2) Microsoft Bing
(3) Microsoft Access
(4) Microsoft 365
29. Which of the following is an open-source spreadsheet software?
(1) LibreOffice Calc
(2) Apple Numbers
(3) Microsoft Excel
(4) Google Sheets
30. Which of the following relatively accurately describes ChatGPT?
(1) A knowledge database
(2) A social networking platform
(3) An AI-powered virtual assistant
(4) A hardware device
31. The file extension .docx is the default extension for which type of file?
(1) DB2 file
(2) Microsoft Defender file
(3) Microsoft Word file
(4) Database file
32. Which protocol is commonly used to send and receive emails on the internet?
(1) HTTPS
(2) WWW
(3) FTP
(4) SMTP
33. Which of the following is not a primary and direct characteristic of a digital signature?
(1) Confidentiality
(2) Non-repudiation
(3) Integrity
(4) Authenticity
34. In the context of computer memory, which of the following correctly represents the full form of the unit GB?
(1) Graybit
(2) Gigabyte
(3) Graybyte
(4) Gridbit
35. Which of the following is an example of an output device in a computer system?
(1) Plotter
(2) Microphone
(3) Scanner
(4) Webcam
36. Which of the following is the correct cloud storage service developed by Google?
(1) OneDrive
(2) iCloud
(3) Google Drive
(4) Google Chrome
37. A UPS provides automatic backup power to a computer system. In the full form of UPS, what does the letter ‘U’ stand for?
(1) Unbreakable
(2) Uninterruptible
(3) Unceasing
(4) Unremitting
38. Which of the following file extensions is commonly used for storing video files?
(1) .avi
(2) .tiff
(3) .pdf
(4) .wav
39. Which of the following is not a valid email address?
(1) myname.country@mymail.in
(2) myname-country@mymail.com
(3) myname#country@gmail.com
(4) myname_country@mymail.in
40. Which of the following keyboard shortcut combinations is commonly used to perform the “Select All” operation in Microsoft Windows?
(1) Ctrl + A
(2) Ctrl + X
(3) Ctrl + C
(4) Ctrl + V
Emrs previous year Question paper 2025
PART – IV
TEACHING APTITUDE
Direction: Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 41 to 70) by selecting the correct / most appropriate options.
(b) fitting new experiences into existing knowledge
(c) revising existing understanding based on new ‘input’
(d) rejecting experiences that do not fit prior knowledge
(e) building knowledge through interaction and reflection
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (b), (d) and (e)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a), (c) and (e)
(4) Only (b), (c) and (e)
(2) Giving homework assignments that repeat classwork without discussion or explanation.
(3) Repeating the same exercise daily until students remember it by heart.
(4) Encouraging students to practice meaningfully with variety, feedback and reflection.
(2) Learning Outcomes
(3) Curricular Aims
(4) Curricular Goals
(2) discouraging individuals to take on varied roles, such as observers, mediators and note-takers
(3) allowing students to compete and show authoritarian leadership
(4) restricting students to work independently
(2) Rote learning
(3) Expository teaching
(4) Problem-based learning
(2) manage the classroom by making children sit passively
(3) guide learners through meaningful experiences that promote understanding
(4) not involve ideas and values
(2) availability of multiple textbooks
(3) inclusive notion of textbooks
(4) over-dependence on textbooks
(2) where teacher ignores the emotions and moods of students – to help them settle and learn better
(3) focuses only on students who demonstrate appropriate behaviour and academic excellence
(4) ensuring students are grouped based on similar learning abilities but adopt same methods of learning using same material to all
(2) Weekly standardized testing
(3) Direct instruction with repetitive practice
(4) Inquiry-based learning with real-life scenarios
(2) he believed cognition is a function of both social and cultural forces
(3) he overemphasized the role of language and environment in cognition
(4) he did not recognize the stages of development
(b) Providing identical instruction to all students
(c) Sharing activities and learning materials
(d) Promoting openness and acceptance
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (b) and (d)
(2) Only (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(2) Teacher professional development
(3) Health and hygiene
(4) Meal-time
(2) Continuous Professional Development
(3) Experience
(4) Incentive
(2) offering a body-mind-spirit continuum for holistic growth
(3) rejecting science in favor of spiritual goals
(4) equating physical education with emotional intelligence
Statement – II: Interest is a preference for a particular activity.
Choose the correct option :
(1) Statement I and Statement II
(2) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
(3) Only Statement I
(4) Only Statement II
(b) He used Id, Ego and Super Ego for explaining the structure of the psyche.
(c) He does not believe in the role of instinct in driving human behaviour.
(d) He postulated two main instincts namely the life instinct and the death instinct.
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (c) and (d)
(2) Evaluate students through standardized tests only
(3) Deliver lectures and provide notes
(4) Maintain silence and discipline in the classroom
(2) Logical
(3) Intuitive
(4) Reasoned
(2) does not include application of concepts through specific tasks.
(3) is not an extension of the learning process.
(4) is a consolidation of work done in school.
(a) Learners analyse and generate evidence to verify their hypothesis related to mammals living on land or water, etc.
(b) Learners make notes of the key events or behaviour or activities of animals.
(c) Learners relate their analysis to the text.
(d) Learners form groups to work on the learning task.
Column B : Learning Process
(i) Interpretations construction
(ii) Contextualisation
(iii) Observation
(iv) Collaboration
Options:
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) Aditi – Bodh – Abhyas – Prayog – Prasar
(3) Aditi – Abhyas – Bodh – Prasar – Prayog
(4) Aditi – Bodh – Prasar – Abhyas – Prayog
(b) Competencies to be achieved
(c) Pedagogical choices based on student understanding
(d) Content and teaching-learning materials’ selection
(e) Home assignments
(b) Negative emotions always improve focus
(c) Positive emotions encourage exploration
(d) Emotions and learning are unrelated
(e) Positive relationships nurture positive emotions
(2) Upamana
(3) Anumana
(4) Anupalabdi
(2) Based on faculty availability
(3) Based on student trends
(4) Based on traditional disciplines only
(2) Being told principles directly
(3) Connecting concepts and reflecting on prior knowledge
(4) Practicing recall by repetition
(2) Students not active agents
(3) Punishment and fear improves learning
(4) Inequity is unacceptable
(2) Only memorization
(3) Art and science of teaching
(4) Only subject teaching
(2) No role of social environment
(3) Brain has little role
(4) Learning is based on associations and connections
Emrs previous year Question paper 2025 Pdf Download
PART – VI
GENERAL ENGLISH
101. Identify the Part of Speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.
Kamala was all alone when I saw her.
(1) Adjective
(2) Conjunction
(3) Pronoun
(4) Adverb
102. Choose the option in which the following jumbled groups of words can be correctly rearranged to form a meaningful sentence.
(a) with what
(b) he received last year
(c) is mild contrasted
(d) the present warning
(1) (a), (b), (d), (c)
(2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) (d), (c), (a), (b)
103. Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word given below.
INTEGRITY
(1) Obesiance
(2) Fragility
(3) Intensity
(4) Compliance
104. One of the parts of the following sentence may or may not have an error. Identify the one with the error, if any.
On my way to | school I found | a | 50 – rupees note
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (c)
(2) (d)
(3) (a)
(4) (b)
105. This national highway runs ______ hill and plain.
(1) below
(2) over
(3) into
(4) above
106. Choose the option nearest in meaning to the word given below.
FASTIDIOUS
(1) Strong
(2) Fashionable
(3) Meticulous
(4) Fast
107. Identify the clause of the underlined part of the following sentence.
That he would score a century is almost certain.
(1) Adjective
(2) Adverb
(3) Principal
(4) Noun
108. St. James’ is ______ church nearest my residence.
(1) the
(2) no article
(3) a
(4) an
109. Choose the option in which VOICE in the given sentence has been correctly changed.
I gave you a pen last year.
(1) You were given a pen by me last year.
(2) A pen was given to you last year.
(3) Last year you had been given a pen by me.
(4) Last year a pen was given to you.
110. Identify the meaning of the underlined idiom used in the given sentence.
On the way we had lunch of a kind.
(1) of a poor kind
(2) very spicy
(3) of great quality
(4) very expensive
PART – VI
GENERAL HINDI
111. निम्नलिखित विलोमार्थी शब्द-युग्मों में कौन-सा असंगत है ?
(1) उत्कर्ष – निकर्ष
(2) निराशित – साश्रय
(3) कनिष्ठ – ज्येष्ठ
(4) ग्राह्य – त्याज्य
112. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में ‘आकाश’ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है :
(1) अंबर
(2) मधुरत
(3) गगनपथ
(4) नभ
113. शब्द ‘वाग्जाल’ का संधि-विच्छेद है :
(1) वाग + जाल
(2) वाग् + जाल
(3) वाक + जाल
(4) वाक् + जाल
114. ‘वीरोचित’ का संधि-विच्छेद है :
(1) वीरा + उचित
(2) वीर + उचित
(3) वीरो + चित
(4) वी + रोचित
115. ‘जो व्याकरण को जानता हो’ वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द है :
(1) वैयाकरण
(2) व्याकरणी
(3) व्याकरणक
(4) व्याकरणिक
116. वर्तनी की दृष्टि से निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा शब्द शुद्ध है ?
(1) बहूत्सव
(2) बहुत्सव
(3) बहूत्सव
(4) बहूस्तव
117. ‘अनुलोम’ का विलोम शब्द है :
(1) सुलोम
(2) प्रतिलोम
(3) अनुलोम
(4) अवलोम
118. ‘विद्यासागर’ का सामासिक विग्रह है :
(1) विद्या और सागर
(2) विद्या का सागर
(3) विद्या के लिए सागर
(4) विद्या में सागर
119. ‘बैल न कूदे, कूदे तंग’ कहावत का अर्थ है :
(1) साहसिक कार्य करना
(2) स्वामी के बल पर सेवक का साहस
(3) वीरता का विश्वास होना
(4) गड्ढे में कूदना
120. ‘ज्वार’ किसका पर्यायवाची है ?
(1) धरती
(2) जल
(3) पवन
(4) अग्नि
EMRS PGT TIER 1 Question paper 2025
PART – V
EXPERIENTIAL ACTIVITY / प्रायोगिक क्रियाकलाप
71. Which of the following may be taken into consideration for developing exemplar-based teaching learning activities?
(a) The objectives of the lesson are important for developing activities.
(b) Developing tasks and activities for exemplars is a single step task.
(c) It is necessary that all lessons will lend to same activities.
(d) The language skills are developed not in isolation but holistically for developing concepts and language of the learners.
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (a) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a), (b) and (c)
Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Only (a) and (d)
72. The primary purpose of introducing a “10-day bagless period” for students in Grades 6–8 as mentioned in the NEP 2020 is to :
(1) promote physical and wellness activities
(2) encourage digital learning and coding skills
(3) reduce the academic load on students during examinations
(4) provide hands-on experience in vocational arts and connect with local experts
Answer
Correct Answer: (4) provide hands-on experience in vocational arts and connect with local experts
73. Which of the following helps in anger management?
(1) Look outward
(2) Recognize the power of one’s thoughts
(3) Engage in self-talk that burns
(4) Ascribe intentions and ulterior motives to others
Answer
Correct Answer: (2) Recognize the power of one’s thoughts
74. According to National Education Policy 2020, what should be done to promote inclusion in the classroom?
(1) Disrespecting empathy, tolerance
(2) Excluding knowledge of various cultures
(3) Promoting biases and stereotypes
(4) Developing respect for diversity
Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Developing respect for diversity
75. Which of the following examples can be taken by the teacher to explain artificial ecosystem to students?
(a) Forest
(b) Ponds
(c) Garden
(d) Aquarium
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (b) and (c)
(2) Only (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a) and (d)
Answer
Correct Answer: (2) Only (c) and (d)
76. Which option describes the approach taken by National Education Policy 2020 to include essential subjects, skills and abilities in the core academic subjects for better exam performance?
(1) Focusing primarily on foreign curricula to increase global competitiveness
(2) Limiting student choice to ensure standardized learning
(3) A multidisciplinary and flexible approach including contemporary subjects, traditional subjects and vocational education
(4) A rigid and traditional approach to education
Answer
Correct Answer: (3) A multidisciplinary and flexible approach
77. Which platform is mentioned for hosting virtual labs in National Education Policy 2020?
(1) YOUTUBE
(2) ZOOM
(3) GOOGLE
(4) SWAYAM
Answer
Correct Answer: (4) SWAYAM
78. In the NEP 2020, the primary purpose of removing the hard separation among curricular, co-curricular and vocational subjects in secondary school education is to :
(1) allow students to design holistic educational paths aligned with their interests and life goals
(2) reduce the number of compulsory subjects in the curriculum
(3) focus only on academic subjects
(4) ensure equal time is allocated to all subjects regardless of students’ preferences
Answer
Correct Answer: (1) allow students to design holistic educational paths
79. According to NEP 2020, which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all by 2030?
(1) SDG 6
(2) SDG 7
(3) SDG 5
(4) SDG 4
Answer
Correct Answer: (4) SDG 4
80. Which of the following types of mental operations relates to the nature of problem-organising a play that involves identification of an appropriate theme, screening of actors, actresses, arranging money, etc.?
(1) plan the solution
(2) evaluate the outcome
(3) identify the problem
(4) represent the problem
Answer
Correct Answer: (1) plan the solution
81. Which among the following are true in the context of learner and the language learning?
(a) Language gives meaning to learner’s existence.
(b) Language learning is a total text-based phenomenon.
(c) Mother tongue gives learners the comfort and the pleasure of expressing themselves.
(d) Language is easiest to communicate in the language which the learners know well.
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (c) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a), (c) and (d)
Answer
Correct Answer: (4) Only (a), (c) and (d)
82. Carl Rogers’ theory grew out of his experiences of listening to patients in his clinic. He views personality development as a :
(1) static and discrete process
(2) continuous process
(3) static process
(4) discrete process
Answer
Correct Answer: (2) continuous process
83. Consider the following two statements in the context of knowledge.
Statement I : Any knowledge discipline is hard to define, because it evolves continuously.
Statement II : Any knowledge discipline is hard to define because the range of phenomena it studies cannot be captured by any one definition.
Answer
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I and Statement II
84. Which among the following statements is/are true in the context of Content Knowledge?
Statement I : It refers to teachers’ understanding of the subject as well as how to transact it in the classroom.
Statement II : It itself is sufficient for effective teaching.
Answer
Correct Answer: (3) Only Statement I
85. According to National Education Policy 2020, what is the intended role of the State School Standard Authority (SSSA) in the school regulatory framework?
(1) Accreditation
(2) Curriculum Development
(3) Inspection
(4) Surveillance
Answer
Correct Answer: (3) Inspection
Question 86
A science teacher wrote some examples of biodegradation on the blackboard and asked her students which of the groups contained only biodegradable substances.
(a) Grass, wood and leather
(b) Grass, wood and plastic
(c) Fruit-peels, cake and lime-juice
(d) Cake, wood and grass
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(2) Only (a), (c)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Only (a) and (c)
Show Answer
Question 87
Anmol is learning geometry. Her teacher asks her to build various 3D shapes using paper and to analyze their edges and vertices. Soham imagines the shapes in his mind and explains their properties without using models. What does this scenario suggest about constructivist learning?
(1) Learning geometry requires strict adherence to visual tools.
(2) Constructivist learning is unsuitable for abstract subjects like geometry.
(3) Only physical interaction with content leads to real understanding.
(4) Mental and physical engagement are equally valid for constructing knowledge.
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Question 88
The vision of the National Education Policy 2020 is to :
(1) nurture learners with a deep-rooted pride in being Indian as well as to develop knowledge, skills, values and dispositions.
(2) promote vocational training as the primary goal of education.
(3) focus academic learning exclusively on examination results.
(4) create technologically advanced institutions only.
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Question 89
A teacher is conducting revision sessions by making small discussion groups before an exam to promote deeper understanding. This is an example of ______ method.
(1) Handout
(2) Lecture
(3) Silent reading
(4) Peer-teaching
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Question 90
Thinking about riding and watching another person ride a bike represents which stage of Kolb’s Experiential Learning Cycle?
(1) Abstract conceptualization
(2) Active experimentation
(3) Concrete experience
(4) Reflective observation
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Question 91
A teacher has discussed a certain topic in classroom and after the conclusion of the unit, he/she asked the students to develop a concept map. How will this concept map be beneficial for the teacher?
(a) to gain insights into the ways student view a concept or topic
(b) to examine only the misconceptions of the students
(c) to assess the structural complexity of the relationships student depict
Choose the correct option :
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Only (a)
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Question 92
Children form a respectful attitude towards elders by observing that their parents show respect for elders. Such attitude is learnt through :
(1) Modelling
(2) Reward
(3) Sympathy
(4) Empathy
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Question 93
According to the National Education Policy 2020, what should be the teacher’s approach towards nurturing gifted students within regular classrooms?
(1) Providing no guidance and leaving them on their own.
(2) Providing standard material for all students irrespective of their abilities.
(3) Segregating them from other students.
(4) Giving students supplementary enrichment material.
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Question 94
As per National Education Policy 2020, which body is proposed to set standards for online learning?
(1) National Educational Technology Forum (NETF)
(2) Central Institute of Educational Technology – National Council of Educational Research and Training (CIET–NCERT)
(3) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(4) National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
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Question 95
Statement I : Gender role is a set of expectations that prescribe how only females should think, act and feel.
Statement II : Parents have no influence on gender socialization especially in the early years of development.
(1) Only Statement I
(2) Only Statement II
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II
(4) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
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Question 96
Social loafing in a group of adolescents can be reduced by :
(1) Increasing the apparent importance or value of a task
(2) Making people feel that their individual contribution is not important
(3) Delegating tasks only to one member
(4) Making the efforts of each person non-identifiable
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Question 97
In everyday language, the word ‘objective’ means :
(a) Based on facts alone
(b) Unbiased
(c) Based on emotions only
(d) Only (a) and (b)
(1) Only (c) and (d)
(2) Only (a) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b) and (c)
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Question 98
In a particular secondary classroom, students have access to a wide range of information and have the right to get their viewpoints heard. The above statement is an example of :
(1) Teacher centered classroom
(2) Textbooks centered classroom
(3) Democratic classroom
(4) Authoritarian classroom
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Question 99
Statement I : The development of an assessment framework is an iterative process, which takes place step by step.
Statement II : The work on the assessment framework should begin before the items are developed.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
(2) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
(3) Only Statement I
(4) Only Statement II
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Question 100
Two students in a Political Science class, after discussion, decided that “Women should not be allowed to join combat units and go up to the highest position of the army.” Their decision reflects the idea of :
(a) Sexism
(b) Feminism
(c) Gender
(d) Patriarchy
(1) Only (b) and (c)
(2) Only (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Only (a) and (d)
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Answer key of D1










